Um . . . I actually didn't say that.
I know you didn't but it was a great segueway to put some hard evidence, rather than idle chatter, into the context of our discussion. I used those words as a jump-off, it doesn't change the validity of the research evidence, nor their applicability to our discussion.
I think your passion for the subject is getting the better of you. I posted that it makes sense to find out if there's victimization. You said, I quote
Qre:us - Idon't understand how you can apply that to evaluating society's role.
Ina- And I gave an example of how you could apply the "find out first" approach to "societal victimization."
This is an interesting point, as I found your example irrelevant to the context of evaluating victimization by society, and I even gave reasoning for why I think your example didn't work. You've yet to counter to this.
Again, to put my quote in context:
I don't understand how you can apply that to evaluating society's role. As victimizing can have more than one form, depending on the AGENT of victimization. By your line of thought, an example: It's all nice and sugary to find out that a person is dead before trying to see who murdered him, because well, murder of a human is a concretely physical thing, but, I don't understand how that logic applies to 'victimization' (marginalization, discrimination, hindrance in access to efficient health care, housing opportunities, employment opportunities, etc) by society?
Unless you think there's is NO way society is capable of victimization, in any form? That'd be interesting to discuss.
E.g., the form of 'victimization' - an individual victimizing another will look very different than a society victimizing an individual, as, well, you know, society isn't a human.
[...]
EDIT: I found a better way to put our different perspectives. I want to know who before I perscribe a what that is uniquely relevant to them. Hence, me wanting to know 'who' you think society is. You want to know 'what' is victimization where I argue that, in this case, 'what' is contingent on first outlining the boundaries of 'who' (their capacities), only then can we understand what they do/did or didn't do.
Counter?
I had a schizophrenic relative, thanks for the silly flourish. I meant keeping them medicated so they're less of a danger to themselves and others, not attacking people like crazy Betsy, but my bad - I forget some people are more literal than others.
Well, literal interpretations are, imo, way more conducive than irrelevant and intellectually dishonest extrapolated interpretation of extreme dichotomies of the other's thoughts/words. I can live with myself. How about you?
Btw, what does you having a schizophrenic relative have to do with anything? Are you suggesting that I automatically assume that you are properly educated on the topic because you had a relative with it, or 'represented them in the past' [whatever that means]? (I rather look at your ideas rather than assume your [lack of] authority on this matter). That's like me believing a person making a homophobic comment didn't mean it as such because they have a cousin who's gay. Um...good for you?
It's a goal, not a promise or a vested right.
It is a vested interest actually, and a goal assumes an 'obligation' to be fulfilled, because goal means effort is directed towards said thing, and government does not make an effort unless they have a stake (vested interest) in it and/or it is their role, e.g., to direct a stable economy...which means jobs (i.e., obligation). I can't give you more lessons on the workings of government than this.
Your not understanding does not make it nonsensical.
No, it's nonsensical beause it doesn't follow logic, not my logic, or yours or the Madhatter's, as logic is objective.
How do you do comparisons without taking particular rankings to compare into account?
You answered your own question. Hint: plural. A comparison cannot be done by focusing in on an isolated case...this makes the word,
comparison, redundant (your words,
case by case - my inference to this: look at each as a contained unit, unrelated to the next).
Do you not compare positions in a hierarchy and see if the rankings make sense?
Um...yes, this is
my point and why I said
your point didn't make sense, because one COMPARES, hence, your point of 'case by case' makes any kind of comparison obsolete (hence, illogical within the context).
Here's a definition of what case by case means:
Adj. 1. case-by-case - separate and distinct from others of the same kind; "mark the individual pages"; "on a case-by-case basis"
item-by-item, individual
independent - free from external control and constraint; "an independent mind"; "a series of independent judgments"; "fiercely independent individualism"
Here's where I pointed out your logical inconsistency:
Ina - I assume nothing of the sort; I prefer to look at each instance of hierarchy on a case by case basis.
Qre:us - This doesn't logically make sense. Heirarchy means a comparative standing, how do you look at such things on a case by case?
I don't know how more literally to point out what I'm trying to say.
Government is not society, but I digress.
Really? Government is not society? Seriously? Never knew that....
Is your passion getting the better of you so that you are now following in my footsteps and missing parts of my posts because of your hurry? Imitation is the greatest form of flattery.
Here, once again, since you missed it on your first go:
I don't understand how you are ignoring that government, as representative of the society, have and do fulfill such obligations..it's not my imagination. Hence, asking again what exactly you mean by society, because I don't know what real society you speak of.
Btw, you still haven't told me what you believe society to be (my 10th? time of asking?)....is it because that will make your case fall on slippery slopes?
Government has many obligations (personal security) and also lofty goals. It cannot fulfill them all. That does not, ipso facto, mean that a person's insanity is an instance of victimhood. Insanity as here (schizophrenia) is not caused by the governments action, because the government did not "cause" the insane to have the illness. Even if we define victimization extremely broadly, the government further did not dupe, swindle, or cheat the insane. The insanity of the insane is not a result of the government's action or inaction. While it is an admirable goal to have medication for all who need it, it's not an inalienable right - not in the U.S., and failure to provide to some who need it constitutes no deception, swindle or cheat, because the government simply made no promise, even in any mandate to provide health care, that your medication will be covered if you cannot afford it. Nor did it promise that the reason for failure to provide the medication would be sounded out for logical infallibility. Nor that you would be given a reason for it. Here, it is set as a goal to give the privilege of affordable health care, not a right. If I have no right to something, I am not victimized for not getting it, unfair as it might be.
A couple of those intellectually dishonest extrapolation of my thoughts that I was speaking of earlier:
- I'm not advocating universal health care (quote me to prove me otherwise)
- I'm not equating victimization to government not providing medication (quote me to prove me otherwise)
- I've never said government 'caused' the 'insanity', actually, our initial conversation, I challenged you on this (quote me to prove me otherwise)
- I've never advocated that government practically has to target ALL/Everyone, actually, I have said more than few times, that this is practically impossible (quote me to prove me otherwise).
So, um...thanks for that soliloquy, but, I don't understand how that's addressing *any* of my point? Please help me see the
light connection.
Again, I repeat, my point is in questioning why certain groups gets aid from government (in whatever form) while certain others do not....and questioning the methodology in how these groups are determined, placed on the heirarchy of aid, within which, we can make a case for victimization due to apparent marginalization....(see the evidence I provided) - housing, employment opportunities, access to health care, the still prevalent stigma of mental illness within society.
Btw, it's a RIGHT, not a PRIVILEDGE, to have protection under the law and equal access to governmental services without any prejudice/discrimination/marginalization due to mental illness, or any other inherent differences. If there's hindrance to such equal access - the individual is 'victimized'. There have been cases in US where communities had banned together to protest a group home for the mentally ill being put up in their neighbourhood, and they won. This is the manifestation of the stigma of mental illness - this is what leads to being victims of society by society due to hindrance to integration.
Each human is not as productive as the next.
As you so facetiously assume of my thought...I never said they were. Did I? Point it out, if I did.
As you so facetiously stated, the mentally insane are not cured, and as someone who has represented them in the past, even when they have medication - they often still get financial support because they are functional with meds, not exactly stellar producers. You'd need to get hard numbers go beyond Econ 101. But still no assaulted schizophrenic "victims" of the gov - just neglected ones.
Did you know that neglect is considered child abuse, just as
actively beating the child is child abuse. They all make that child a victim of said adult. Imagine that...inaction has recognized consequences.
