# Thread: How do you think through this?

1. Forzen, are you trying to reduce the OPs use of infinity through division of infinity by infinity?

2. send 1/2 to both fronts and let the third be forfeit.

3. Originally Posted by MagnificentMind
Forzen, are you trying to reduce the OPs use of infinity through division of infinity by infinity?
I'm not trying to reduce anything, I just found those sentences I bolded in those quotes to be highly entertaining for some reason. Maybe you could tell me?

4. Originally Posted by forzen
I'm not trying to reduce anything, I just found those sentences I bolded in those quotes to be highly entertaining for some reason. Maybe you could tell me?
No?

5. Originally Posted by MagnificentMind
No?
Since you insist on taking me to school.

infinity = infinity
1/2 (infinity) = 1/2 (infinity)
1/4 (infinity) = 1/4 (infinity)

Regardless of how much you divide a number going forever, if their equal their going to be the same number.

You deduct that 3 and 4 is not the same as infinity. But natural numbers has an infinite amount of numbers between them.

3 ---> 4 = 3 + (1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ......)

So how do you truly know if 1 = 1 if it can go like this:

1.999999....... and 1.999999......, you wouldn't because there can be an infinite amount of decimals and any decimal along the way may vary along the way that would make that statement untrue. This is the same principle your little wiki page is trying to explain. But, since the OP stated that both armies are equal, then we can deduct that dividing the armies would yield the same amount. So in this case, the OP dictate that f(x) = x. The dependent and independent variable are the same: x = y, then x/y = 1. How could you not see this?

6. Originally Posted by forzen
Since you insist on taking me to school.

infinity = infinity
1/2 (infinity) = 1/2 (infinity)
1/4 (infinity) = 1/4 (infinity)

Regardless of how much you divide a number going forever, if their equal their going to be the same number.

You deduct that 3 and 4 is not the same as infinity. But natural numbers has an infinite amount of numbers between them.

3 ---> 4 = 3 + (1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ......)

So how do you truly know if 1 = 1 if it can go like this:

1.999999....... and 1.999999......, you wouldn't because there can be an infinite amount of decimals and any decimal along the way may vary along the way that would make that statement untrue. This is the same principle your little wiki page is trying to explain. But, since the OP stated that both armies are equal, then we can deduct that dividing the armies would yield the same amount. So in this case, the OP dictate that f(x) = x. The dependent and independent variable are the same: x = y, then x/y = 1. How could you not see this?
What the fuck?

7. What is wrong with you people and sticking to the word "infinity", it was obviously not literal.

Originally Posted by durentu
send 1/2 to both fronts and let the third be forfeit.
Thats what I thought too

8. Originally Posted by MagnificentMind

a) It is obvious that you're fighting some imbecile of a warlord, as he randomly sends his troops out to die. (not that their deaths matter, as there is an infinite number) This raises a few questions:

- How did this dumbshit of a warlord come into power?

- How does he keep the economy and people under his control?

- Where do they live, as the universe might not be able to contain an infinte amount of people.
HA HA

9. Originally Posted by MagnificentMind
What the fuck?
The same words that came out my mouth when I saw your first post .

10. Originally Posted by forzen
So all we have to do is divide the total amount of people in the world in half (if it's odd, that unlucky soul would be first blood and would be used to rationalize the war) and use that number to compute the data.
Infinity has a half point? Please specify.

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