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What MBTI type was Carl Jung

Mal12345

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He's apparently using Socionics notation (lowercase "p" is dominant function=Si dom. with Te aux. or an ISTJ) That's supposed to be truer to Jung, ans what you alluded to in saying Jung would have matched Ti+S to ISTJ, but when that method i used, we lowercase the j/p so it doesn't get confused with MBTI notation. I'm sure "entertainment position" is supposedly another term for the inferior function. (I too would say his intuition doesn't seem inferior).

Jung said he became more of a Sensing type as he grew older. But the young Jung was definitely Ni-dominant and INFJ (Socionics INFp).
 

Lark

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Jung said he became more of a Sensing type as he grew older. But the young Jung was definitely Ni-dominant and INFJ (Socionics INFp).

Where or when did he say that? It could be related to the quote I read from him once upon a time which indicated he prided sensing over intuition and considered that one was the more mature function than the other.
 

Mal12345

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Where or when did he say that? It could be related to the quote I read from him once upon a time which indicated he prided sensing over intuition and considered that one was the more mature function than the other.

It was in some youtube interview, and I'm not going to search for hours for it.
 

Jaguar

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Where or when did he say that? It could be related to the quote I read from him once upon a time which indicated he prided sensing over intuition and considered that one was the more mature function than the other.

First of all, Jung was notorious for contradicting himself. The more of his work you read, the more this becomes obvious. Having said that, this is from Analytical Psychology: Notes of the Seminar Given in 1925.

"As a natural scientist, thinking and sensation were uppermost in me and intuition and feeling were in the unconscious and contaminated by the collective unconscious."


Then you've got his 1959 BBC interview:

"Well, you see, the type is nothing static. It changes in the course of life, but I most certainly was characterized by thinking. I always thought, from early childhood on, and I had a great deal of intuition too. And I had a definite difficulty with feeling, and my relation to reality was not particularly brilliant. I was often at variance with the reality of things. Now that gives you all the necessary data for a diagnosis"


Frankly, I thought he could be a flake at times, but I digress.
 

Mal12345

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I was only able to find part of the interview I was thinking of. Jung indicates that he is Intuitive and Thinking, having difficulty with Sensing and Feeling, and indicates that it is enough information for the listener to make a diagnosis. But later on in the full interview he says that he developed Sensing later on in life.

 

Mal12345

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First of all, Jung was notorious for contradicting himself. The more of his work you read, the more this becomes obvious. Having said that, this is from Analytical Psychology: Notes of the Seminar Given in 1925.

"As a natural scientist, thinking and sensation were uppermost in me and intuition and feeling were in the unconscious and contaminated by the collective unconscious."

That's one of the quotes I was searching for. It's not the part where he says he developed Sensing.
 

Turi

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He's apparently using Socionics notation (lowercase "p" is dominant function=Si dom. with Te aux. or an ISTJ) That's supposed to be truer to Jung, ans what you alluded to in saying Jung would have matched Ti+S to ISTJ, but when that method i used, we lowercase the j/p so it doesn't get confused with MBTI notation. I'm sure "entertainment position" is supposedly another term for the inferior function. (I too would say his intuition doesn't seem inferior).

How is "aux Te" in any introverted type "truer to Jung"?
reckful laid out pretty clearly how that's not a thing (from Jungs perspective).

Not related to the topic - but does anyone know how Socionics ended up making the exact same mistake Myers did re: I/E - misunderstanding the attitudes to such a degree they felt the need to force IEIE/EIEI stacks in order to accommodate for the perceived 'lack of' I or E?
 

Eric B

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No; I meant having j/p refer to the dominant function was supposed to be truer to Jung (since he has "rational/irrational" as referring to the dominant).
 

Mal12345

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No; I meant having j/p refer to the dominant function was supposed to be truer to Jung (since he has "rational/irrational" as referring to the dominant).

Why use the term "irrational"? It sounds like something gone insane.
 

Eric B

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I know, but that's the term he used. (It probably didn't take on its more common negative connotation until later).
I prefer "a-rational".
 

highlander

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I was only able to find part of the interview I was thinking of. Jung indicates that he is Intuitive and Thinking, having difficulty with Sensing and Feeling, and indicates that it is enough information for the listener to make a diagnosis. But later on in the full interview he says that he developed Sensing later on in life.
I think he was definitely an INTJ or INTP based on what he said there
 

Lark

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First of all, Jung was notorious for contradicting himself. The more of his work you read, the more this becomes obvious. Having said that, this is from Analytical Psychology: Notes of the Seminar Given in 1925.

"As a natural scientist, thinking and sensation were uppermost in me and intuition and feeling were in the unconscious and contaminated by the collective unconscious."


Then you've got his 1959 BBC interview:

"Well, you see, the type is nothing static. It changes in the course of life, but I most certainly was characterized by thinking. I always thought, from early childhood on, and I had a great deal of intuition too. And I had a definite difficulty with feeling, and my relation to reality was not particularly brilliant. I was often at variance with the reality of things. Now that gives you all the necessary data for a diagnosis"


Frankly, I thought he could be a flake at times, but I digress.

Interesting.

I guess I'm less scathing of Jung than all that, I think he has a definite style of writing and discussion which lends itself much easier to leveling those accusations against him, easier that Freud maybe.

What I would say is that what I know of his body of theory from his theory of consciousness/collective unconscious and dreams, then the whole channeling of archetypes, their lodging in the unconscious as complexes and the whole mandela version of the psyche it all seems pretty far removed from the whole personality typology and MBTI too.

I dont know why that is or if its something like Freud's initial ideas about ego, ID and superego and then his later one about the eros versus thanatos/death wish.

In Freud's case I've heard it argued that this has got something to do with his post-world war one experience resulting in his theories becoming pseudo-religious, that's a charge leveled against psychoanalysis as a whole and jewish theorists in particular, but I'm not sure, despite his actual explicit interests in the occult and all things spiritual and religious, that you could say that about Jung. Do you really think he was a flake? Really?

Thanks for posting, I'm interested in your opinions and respect them for the most part.
 

Lark

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I think he was definitely an INTJ or INTP based on what he said there

Just out of interest, I've read a lot of analysts talk about feeling, in particular theorising that society at large has never handled feeling that well and discourages people from a mature and balanced feeling response where it is warranted, do you consider that a thinking or a feeling indicator? Its little information to go with, I know, could it be possible that people who pride the one cognitive function could be automatically using the other?
 

Turi

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No; I meant having j/p refer to the dominant function was supposed to be truer to Jung (since he has "rational/irrational" as referring to the dominant).

Ah, apologies for the misunderstanding.
Still, 'aux Te' doesn't work from a 'pure' Jungian perspective*.
I'd love to know Socionics made the same mistake - I was under the impression it was derived from Psychological Types separately of Myers, though, at around the same time.


*which imo, shouldn't be strictly adhered to, as it's too limiting.
 

Mal12345

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I think he was definitely an INTJ or INTP based on what he said there

If all he had was his own sketchy typology to work from then it's no wonder he got it wrong.
 

Jaguar

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Do you really think he was a flake? Really?


A flake is merely one who at times can lack follow-through, Lark. He can be all over the place during one period and fine the next.
 

Lark

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A flake is merely one who at times can lack follow-through, Lark. He can be all over the place during one period and fine the next.

That sounds like a lot of people, in fact everyone, probably.
 

Norexan

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INFJ as 1 of 1. :D
 
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