Spurgeon
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- Jun 21, 2011
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- xNxx
I see, circular reasoning is not susceptible to things that happened in the real world.
F. C. Burkitt thinks that "most English readers of the New Testament have been too long content with the rough and ready Harmony of the Four Gospels that they unconsciously construct. This kind of 'Harmony' is not a very convincing picture when looked into, if only because it almost always conflicts with inconvenient statements of the Gospels themselves, statements that have been omitted from the 'Harmony,' not on any reasoned theory, but simply from inadvertence or the difficulty of fitting them in."
I don't see how that's relevant to whether the Gospel was meant for the Jews alone or for the whole world.
Even if Matthew 28:19 were omitted, Christ's command to preach to all nations is clearly stated in Mark 16:15. :
And he said to them, “Go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation."
And it is further supported by Acts 1:6-8. :
So when they had come together, they asked him, "Lord, will you at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?" He said to them, "It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority. But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth."
You said:
andJesus wants his followers to go only to other Jews. You are one of his followers, but not all of us reading your posts are Jews.
It would also be very un-Jewish of Jesus to instruct his followers to proclaim his religious ideas to anyone but his fellow Jews.
Can you defend these statements, in light of the texts I quoted?