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  1. #1
    ✿ڿڰۣஇღ♥ wut ♥ღஇڿڰۣ✿ digesthisickness's Avatar
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    Default Star Wars VS Star Trek - Is Kirk Immune to The Force??

    Okay, so I was having a conversation with someone when they said the following. After reading it, I'd like your opinion on how right this person is, and if he's not right, how. As a huge fan of both, this is bugging me.

    HIM: Here's another thought - in the Star Wars EU, anything that is not touched by the Force cannot be killed with a lightsaber (because in the EU lighsabers are only possible because of the Force) or "Force pushed' etc. So in a Star Wars vs Star Trek crossover, all the Jedi powers would be useless against Captain Kirk!


    ME: Why not? Isn't the force "all around us" and therefore in everyone? Including the Kirk?


    HIS FRIEND: Woah bro!! Just woah!!! You're taking this to a whole new level of nerd!


    ME: No, wait, this is serious. Why not???


    HIM: Because midi-cholrians only exist in the Star Wars galaxy. Anything outside the galaxy does not have them, so there is no Force power.


    HIM: The Force works like magnetism, if an object is not magnetic, there is no connection.


    ME: Hmmmm. I'm gonna have to get back with you on this.
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  2. #2
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    but if midi-cholrians exist in everything in the SW galaxy, and are pretty much overdosed in the Jedi themselves, wouldn't the Jedi coming into the star trek universe be bringing them with them, infecting everything around them and eventually spreading throughout the entire galaxy?

    also, if the Jedi came to the ST galaxy, having had FTL travel a long time ago - and star trek being quite a while in the future (assuming leaving anywhere within the general timeframe of the movies), they would have arrived long before the federation came to be, so the plegue of midi-cholrians would already be underway by federation time.

    it's sort of like the telekinetic-zombie apocalypse.

  3. #3
    Epiphany
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    I would assume in these hypothetical situations that the universes are merged into one, like different stories in the same universe, unless particular laws of one directly contradict the other.

  4. #4
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    Quote Originally Posted by Moniker View Post
    I would assume in these hypothetical situations that the universes are merged into one, like different stories in the same universe, unless particular laws of one directly contradict the other.
    i am pretty sure both have laws that contradict within themselves anyway, but i am going to leave that to the INTPs.

  5. #5
    Epiphany
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mane View Post
    i am pretty sure both have laws that contradict within themselves anyway, but i am going to leave that to the INTPs.
    Ha! Probably so. And I bet the diehards lose sleep ruminating over the absurdity of it all. The woes of being a geek are a heavy burden to bear.

  6. #6
    The High Priestess Amargith's Avatar
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    I bet Google knows.
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  7. #7
    ✿ڿڰۣஇღ♥ wut ♥ღஇڿڰۣ✿ digesthisickness's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mane View Post
    but if midi-cholrians exist in everything in the SW galaxy, and are pretty much overdosed in the Jedi themselves, wouldn't the Jedi coming into the star trek universe be bringing them with them, infecting everything around them and eventually spreading throughout the entire galaxy?

    also, if the Jedi came to the ST galaxy, having had FTL travel a long time ago - and star trek being quite a while in the future (assuming leaving anywhere within the general timeframe of the movies), they would have arrived long before the federation came to be, so the plegue of midi-cholrians would already be underway by federation time.

    it's sort of like the telekinetic-zombie apocalypse.
    They exist in everything in Star Wars but that doesn't necessarily mean they would eventually exist in Star Trek. What's there is there, always was/is. What evidence is there (I know this isn't real, OKAY?) that they spread like an infection?
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  8. #8
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    Quote Originally Posted by digesthisickness View Post
    They exist in everything in Star Wars but that doesn't necessarily mean they would eventually exist in Star Trek. What's there is there, always was/is. What evidence is there (I know this isn't real, OKAY?) that they spread like an infection?
    hmm, let's see.. from the SW wiki:
    http://starwars.wikia.com/wiki/Midi-chlorian
    Midi-chlorians were intelligent microscopic life forms that lived symbiotically inside the cells of all living things. When present in sufficient numbers, they could allow their symbiont to detect the pervasive energy field known as the Force. Midi-chlorian counts were linked to potential in the Force, ranging from normal Human levels of 2,500 per cell to the much higher levels of Jedi. The highest known midi-chlorian count—over 20,000 per cell—belonged to the Jedi Anakin Skywalker, who was believed to have been conceived by the midi-chlorians.
    also, i found this:
    They also allowed for a connection with the pervasive energy field known as the Force;[4] in sufficient numbers, midi-chlorians could allow their symbiont organism to detect the Force, and this connection could be strengthened by quieting one's mind,[2] allowing the midi-chlorians to "speak" to their symbiont and communicate the will of the Force.
    so the force itself isn't a result of midi-chlorians, it exists regardless, its just that their host needs them to be connected to the force. assuming the jedi come with their own mid-chlorian infected cells, it doesn't matter if the rest of the galaxy doesn't have any.



    this is ofcourse, assuming that the force itself is universal, which is questionable:
    "Well, the Force is what gives a Jedi his power. It's an energy field created by all living things. It surrounds us and penetrates us; it binds the galaxy together.
    http://starwars.wikia.com/wiki/The_Force

  9. #9
    Senior Member Mal12345's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by digesthisickness View Post
    Okay, so I was having a conversation with someone when they said the following. After reading it, I'd like your opinion on how right this person is, and if he's not right, how. As a huge fan of both, this is bugging me.

    HIM: Here's another thought - in the Star Wars EU, anything that is not touched by the Force cannot be killed with a lightsaber (because in the EU lighsabers are only possible because of the Force) or "Force pushed' etc. So in a Star Wars vs Star Trek crossover, all the Jedi powers would be useless against Captain Kirk!


    ME: Why not? Isn't the force "all around us" and therefore in everyone? Including the Kirk?


    HIS FRIEND: Woah bro!! Just woah!!! You're taking this to a whole new level of nerd!


    ME: No, wait, this is serious. Why not???


    HIM: Because midi-cholrians only exist in the Star Wars galaxy. Anything outside the galaxy does not have them, so there is no Force power.


    HIM: The Force works like magnetism, if an object is not magnetic, there is no connection.


    ME: Hmmmm. I'm gonna have to get back with you on this.
    Wrong forum.
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  10. #10
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mal+ View Post
    Wrong forum.
    it's iffy (it is a pop culture but it is a sub section of the MBTI), but does it matter? after all, this is the back ally of typoC, tucked between two other sub forums competing for the "last thread posted in" spot... you can pretty much post here bare breasts and nobody is going to notice.

    edit: star trek is Ti, star wars is Fi. happy now?

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