There is much that is controversial about Jesus, but it is generally accepted even among agnostics that there was a man by this name who lived roughly between 5 BC and 33 AD. He was executed by order of the Roman provincial governor of Judea, Pontius Pilate, and the sentence was carried out in the manner commonly used at the time, i.e. impalement or crucifixion. On these general points the historical sources are in agreement.
So when I subsequently look at Psalm 22, a lyric written by David ben Jesse some ten centuries prior, I find striking similarities between the account of suffering in David's psalm and the historical account of the death of Jesus by crucifixion.
The psalm begins with the question "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" which is of course why Jesus would have said that same thing in the process of his execution.
Please note, also:
16 ...Dogs have surrounded me;
a band of evil men has encircled me,
they have pierced my hands and my feet.
17 I can count all my bones;
people stare and gloat over me.
18 They divide my garments among them
and cast lots for my clothing....
The piercing of hands and feet was common practice in crucifixion, but as I understand it would not have been particularly familiar to David in 1000 BC. The casting of lots for clothing was unusual too, and yet found in both accounts.
Act of God? Prophetic utterance? Coincidence? Psychic phenomenon? Jungian synchronicity in action? Nothing at all? It's up to the student to decide, of course.
It's worth noting, by the way, that the psalm can be corroborated by religious Jewish sources hostile to Christianity. While it is possible that the gospels may have been manipulated to fit Psalm 22, it's highly unlikely to the point of impossibility that Psalm 22 was manipulated to fit the gospels.