I'm still struggling a bit to understand exactly the differences between extroverted and introverted judging functions, and wondered if anyone could help clear the concept up a bit for me? For example, feelings are feelings - viewing something in terms of its value and relevance for people and how they will feel about the way in which they're affected by it. But if someone cares about how they make others feel, that's still an inward concern...even though the application is outward. Or, if someone has inner feelings about changes that could make a better world for instance...the potential ramifications are still in the external world. So how is something classified as Fe versus Fi?
One way I've been told to think about it is in terms of how people 'align' themselves and their feelings and values with the world and people around them versus deriving them internally. But, does this mean Fe-users basically follow the crowd to do whatever everyone else believes, rather than deriving their own personal beliefs? I wouldn't think an Fe preference would be something that would preclude independent thought or standing for a cause that runs counter to the majority! Not with people like Martin Luther King and Nelson Mandela counted as ENFJS
Others have suggested thinking of Fe users as people who 'know' their audience - read other people's feelings and instinctively adapt their way of communicating to be responsive to them. But does that imply that Fi users would tend to be poor at reading or responding to how other people feel?
Myers-Briggs tests often differentiate judgers and perceivers based on their level of focus, of organization; Judgers, who extravert their dominant judging functions, tend to be on time, plan ahead, stay focused on one goal to completion, while Perceivers with their dominant judging functions introverted tend to be more scattered and spontaneous. But I don't see where that would have anything to do with the extroversion or introversion of the functions; why would someone who extroverts feeling be more likely to be focused and organized than someone who introverts it?
There's one last point that confuses me on the functions. It's indicated that if one judging function is preferentially extroverted, the other is preferentially introverted. Why would this always necessarily be the case? For example, isn't it possible for someone to have a preference for extroverting rather than introverting both, feeling AND thinking, even if one was dominant? Why would someone who extroverts a dominant feeling function necessarily prefer introverted to extroverted thinking?
Thank you so much for your thoughts!!