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  1. #1
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    Default Why do people care about defining whether they, or anyone else, is E or I?

    It seems irrelevant as the functions are the same just in slightly different order. Most people could probably even switch the order easily over time. Seems like worrying over whether someone is 24 or 25 y/o.

    Discuss.

  2. #2
    Senior Member Entropic's Avatar
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    Because it actually correlates to the function attitude of the dominant which matters a great deal in Jungian psychology since Jung spent most of the time explaining the dominant-inferior relationship in Psychological Types since it is the psychic process which matters the most. Everything else is quite irrelevant. So being able to pin down your actual dominant function is important. Not because anyone gives a damn about understanding actual analytical psychology on this forum but anyway.

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  3. #3
    Senior Member pinkgraffiti's Avatar
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    You are probably right in theory, but in practice I see a lot of difference between myself as an ENFP and INFPs around me. And I do find that I can learn a lot from their Fi and Si while they can learn a lot from my Ne and Te. Also, you find correlations between MBTI and the enneagram (or other systems) where for example ENFP is more highly linked to type 7 and INFP to type 4....and this is what I have observed, again, in pratice.

  4. #4
    Senior Member Entropic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by pinkgraffiti View Post
    You are probably right in theory, but in practice I see a lot of difference between myself as an ENFP and INFPs around me. And I do find that I can learn a lot from their Fi and Si while they can learn a lot from my Ne and Te. Also, you find correlations between MBTI and the enneagram (or other systems) where for example ENFP is more highly linked to type 7 and INFP to type 4....and this is what I have observed, again, in pratice.
    I don't think the correlation is that great part because I think those correlations occur because MBTI describes a certain type associated with each type that correlates to the descriptions of the various enneatypes. While in reality people are probably far removed from all this. Every 5 is not going to be an INTP. In fact, if you score INTP on the MBTI you are likely to score 5 on an enneagram test as a default. Funnily enough, the reality is that most people who do this are actually neither INTPs nor are they 5s. I noted a certain tendency in particular among ESFJ and ISFJ men (that is, a preference towards Si and Fe as their two ego conscious functions) who are more intellectual to easily mistake themselves for INTP and 5 when they are in fact 9 and xSFJ.

    But whatever.

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  5. #5
    Senior Member pinkgraffiti's Avatar
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    I didn't say that every 5 is an INTP. I said correlation (ie. everything higher than 50% or that at least shows statistical significance). And I think you can say that certain types are more likely an enneagram than others.
    That said, that was a parenthesis and you didn't make any comment about the marrow of my comment and now we are getting off track...

    Quote Originally Posted by LeaT View Post
    I don't think the correlation is that great part because I think those correlations occur because MBTI describes a certain type associated with each type that correlates to the descriptions of the various enneatypes. While in reality people are probably far removed from all this. Every 5 is not going to be an INTP. In fact, if you score INTP on the MBTI you are likely to score 5 on an enneagram test as a default. Funnily enough, the reality is that most people who do this are actually neither INTPs nor are they 5s.

    But whatever.

  6. #6
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    The functional order is explanatory for habitual sets of actions, though yeah, it's not as much of an important detail as say P and J.

  7. #7
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    Quote Originally Posted by LeaT View Post
    Because it actually correlates to the function attitude of the dominant which matters a great deal in Jungian psychology since Jung spent most of the time explaining the dominant-inferior relationship in Psychological Types since it is the psychic process which matters the most. Everything else is quite irrelevant. So being able to pin down your actual dominant function is important. Not because anyone gives a damn about understanding actual analytical psychology on this forum but anyway.
    Possibly true. But a lot of people who do understand actual analytical psychology would probably dismiss the theory, am I wrong?

    Quote Originally Posted by pinkgraffiti View Post
    You are probably right in theory, but in practice I see a lot of difference between myself as an ENFP and INFPs around me. And I do find that I can learn a lot from their Fi and Si while they can learn a lot from my Ne and Te. Also, you find correlations between MBTI and the enneagram (or other systems) where for example ENFP is more highly linked to type 7 and INFP to type 4....and this is what I have observed, again, in pratice.
    I agree, but "therein lies the rub" as William Shakespeare said.

    If it's obvious in practice then you don't need to ask it on a forum.

    And as it is by your own defintion ONLY relevant in practice: then if it ISN'T obvious in practice, why try to define it "in theory"? i.e. why not just accept many people as ambiverts (or in any case, so close to ambiversion as to make a definition useless)?

    Quote Originally Posted by jontherobot View Post
    The functional order is explanatory for habitual sets of actions, though yeah, it's not as much of an important detail as say P and J.
    Agreed JTR, as usual.

    (btw I am still relying on you to solve the iNtuition vs Sensing conundrum).

  8. #8
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    Quote Originally Posted by Il Morto Che Parla View Post
    (btw I am still relying on you to solve the iNtuition vs Sensing conundrum).

    Don't you know P's aren't prone to being pressured?!


    And also, a non-MBTI oriented study showed around 70% of the population is ambiverted. It's ridiculous for most of us to have to pick a dichotomy (let alone enforce it on another), but whatever.

  9. #9
    Senior Member Entropic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Il Morto Che Parla View Post
    Possibly true. But a lot of people who do understand actual analytical psychology would probably dismiss the theory, am I wrong?
    You can still express it with the MBTI letter code. To me the MBTI letter code means this:

    I/E: the attitude of the dominant function
    S/N: if one prefers S/N
    T/F: if one prefers T/F
    J/P: this denotes the dominant function although in a very fucked up manner.

    These letters are absolute and do not have a varying percentage scale with the exception being the auxiliary/tertiary. You cannot be 70% Fi and 30% Fe as your dominant function, that doesn't work. If that's true then your dominant function is not fully differentiated which in other words means that you have no real psychological type either and trying to type you is utterly useless to begin.

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  10. #10
    Senior Member Entropic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by pinkgraffiti View Post
    I didn't say that every 5 is an INTP. I said correlation (ie. everything higher than 50% or that at least shows statistical significance). And I think you can say that certain types are more likely an enneagram than others.
    That said, that was a parenthesis and you didn't make any comment about the marrow of my comment and now we are getting off track...
    I know you didn't. I am just stating that I think the correlation is weak because the correlation does not correlate to actual psychological type but persona.

    I was waiting for the day you and I would meet.

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