[ptgatsby]

Originally Posted by Uberfuhrer

When determining an IQ, do they also factor interests relative to age level into the equation? As in would a child with more intellectual or esoteric interests more likely have a higher IQ? If not, then why else would a clinician be overseeing the test-taking process?

No, except the distribution can change with children... normally there are seperate tests because children can't cope with the more advanced tests at the practical level. As such, most tests are age-limited and validated, often from 18-50 or so, though the more recent ones/validated ones like KAIT (something like 10-80) and WAIS (which has different tests validated for their own age group - so data integrity is only assumed within each test) are pretty open.

A clinician oversees IQ tests for reliability and because of the nature of the tests. Same reason MBTI isn't taken and just scored, but is done through a clinician of sorts.

Does High Openness on the FFM (N on MBTI) have any correlation to sociopathic behavior?

Nothing in particular that would be sociopathic, if you mean either a lack of emotion or associating the wrong emotion to events. They tend to be associated with everything except openness (the lack of empathy/agreeableness/T-ness being the core one here).

So, high IQ and N don't correlate to the issues directly, but rather are a sub-factor to how the other trait is handled. That is, you don't associate low-end sociopaths, of which there are plenty (I think it's either 1% or 3% of the population... but faily substantial), with openness while the more dramatic ones are high IQ and adaptable.

Originally Posted by lastrailway

Since N/S has to do with the way you take input from the world and T/F with the way you process the information, then I would guess that the IQ would relate with a combination of the two functions. Maybe STs can score higher, due to the various memory/spacial/visual questions
But if I should relate only one function, then I would say Ts might score higher in those tests.

In general, T has no significant correlation to IQ... N has a very significant correlation.

It is important to note that it is only one sub-trait that is at all significant in this discussion - "openness to ideas". N includes it indirectly, but has a very different distribution of N/S, making the pool smaller, thus seemingly higher, while the FFM trait makes it easier to measure that one factor in general, showing that the other factors are not significant at all.

As I've said before, I think IQ should be ripped from N and Openness and put into it's own section - I think it is too broad to be captured as only one sub-trait. Also, these can be tested for rather than self-selected, which is significantly different than the other factors (right now).